IPO Exam III Paper (Re-exam) Answers for 1 to 70 questions

INSPECTOR OF POSTS – III PAPER (RE-EXAM)

Question Booklet Series: A

1.     Code of Civil Procedure came into force in the year:

Ans: (C) 1909

2.     “Mesne Profits” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (C) Benefits enjoyed by the person in wrongful possession of the property

3.     “Foreign Judgement” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (D) The judgement of a Foreign court

4.     Decree of a

Civil Court

means and includes:

Ans: (A) Any order of dismissal for default

5.     “Judgement Debtor” means:

Ans: (D) A person against whom Decree has been passed

6.     Pleader means:

Ans: (D) Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in Court

7.     The word “Judge” under C.P.C. means:

Ans: (B) Presiding Officer of a Civil Court

8.     The word “Order” under section 2 of C.P.C. means:

Ans: (D) Formal expression of any decision of a

Civil Court

9.     “Share in a corporation” shall be deemed to include:

Ans: (C) Bond, stock, debenture, debenture stock

10. Apart from the State of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it, C.P.C. does not apply:

Ans: (B) Nagaland

·        ) These are comes under Civil Procedure Code 1908

11. A proclamation under section 82 of Cr.P.C. can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued. Thus a proclamation can be issued against:

Ans: (C) Accused offender

12. Attachment of the property of the person absconding:

Ans: (C) Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation u/sec. 82 of Cr. P.C.

13. A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving:

Ans: (A) Not less than 30 days time to the person concerned

14. Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/sec. 83 of Cr.P.C. by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/sec. 84 of Cr.P.C. is:

Ans: (C) Within six month of attachment

15. Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is:

Ans: (C) One year from the date of disallowing the claim

16. If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached:

Ans: (A) Shall be released from attachment

17. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from:

Ans: (C) Section 84 of Cr. P.C.

18. If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached:

Ans: (D) Both (A) & (B)

19. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the same proceeds on appearance:

Ans: (C) Within 2 years of attachment

20. The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the Court that:

Ans: (D) Both (A) & (B)

21. The power of issuing proclamation u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C.:

Ans: (A) With the Court of Magistrate

22. A proclamation issued u/sec. 82 Cr.P.C. is issued:

Ans: (D) All the above

23. Attachment orders u/sec. 83 Cr.P.C. is to be passed:

Ans: (D) All the above

24. Attachment u/sec. 83 Cr.P.C. of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made:

Ans: (C) Through the District Collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated

                  

·        ) These are comes under Criminal Procedure Code 1973.

25. A fact forming part of the same transaction is relevant u/sec. 6 of Evidence Act

Ans: (C) Though not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place

26. Several classed of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

27. Motive behind an Act is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

28. Preparation for an Act is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

29. Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevane:

Ans: (C) Both (A) & (B)

30. Under section 8 of Evidence Act:

Ans: (D) All the above are relevant

31. When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant:

Ans: (A) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

32. Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant:

Ans: (B) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

33. A person is not entitled to give evidence of a fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law:

Ans: (A) Under section 5 of Evidence Act

34. The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B where delivered to A. The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively. Each delivery is a relevant fact:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

35. The question is, whether A murdered B. Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant fact:

Ans: (C) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

36. A is accused of murder of B by beating him. Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact:

Ans: (B) Under section 6 of Evidence Act

37. A is tried for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B, A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact:

Ans: (C) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

38. The question is whether A omitted a crime. The fact that a absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made fro the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

39. The question is, whether A was robbed. The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant:

Ans: (C) Under section 7 of Evidence Act

40. A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money. B denies the making of bond. The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made, B required money for particular purpose, is relevant:

Ans: (D) Under section 8 of Evidence Act

·        ) These are comes under Indian Evidence Act 1872.

41. ‘Wrongful gain’ means:

Ans: (B) Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled. (Under section 23 of IPC)

42. ‘Wrongful loss’ means:

Ans: (A) Loss by unlawful means of property which the person losing it, is legally entitled. (Under section 23 of IPC)

43. ‘Dishonestly’ has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another:

Ans: (D) Under section 24 of IPC

44. ‘Fraudulently’ has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud:

Ans: (C) Under section 25 of IPC

45. Section 34 of IPC:

Ans: (A) Creates a substantive offence

46. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

Ans: (A) Death of a human being

47. Illegal signifies:

Ans: (D) All the above (Under section 43 of IPC)

48. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention-as defined:

Ans: (C) Under section 52 of IPC

49. Personating a public servant is an offence:

Ans: (B) Under section 170 of IPC

50. The term ‘injury’ as defined in section 44 of IPC, means:

Ans: (C) Any harm illegally caused to a person in body, mind, property and reputation

51. The word ‘voluntarily’ has been defined:

Ans: (B) In section 39 of IPC

52. For the application of section 34 of IPC, there must be at least:

Ans: (D) More than five persons

53. Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable:

Ans: (B) Under section 174 of IPC

54. Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is punishable:

Ans: (A) Under section 177 of IPC

55. Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable:

Ans: (C) Under section 184 of IPC

56. Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable:

Ans: (B) Under section 188 of IPC

57. Threat of injury to public servant is punishable:

Ans: (A) Under section 189 of IPC

58. Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable:

Ans: (C) Under section 491 of IPC

59. Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided:

Ans: (C) In section 54 of IPC

60. Under section 73 of IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed:

Ans: (A) 3 months

61. In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine:

Ans: (B) Has to be simple (Under section 67 of IPC)

62. In IPC the pronoun ‘he’ and its derivative are used to denote:

Ans: (C) Either                (Under section 8 of IPC)

63. In IPC the word ‘India’ means the territory of Indian excluding:

Ans: (B) State of Jammu & Kashmir (Under section 18 of IPC)

64. The word ‘Public servant’ has been defined in IPC:

Ans: (B) In section 21

65. The word ‘Special law’ has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean:

Ans: (A) A law applicable to a particular subject

66. The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited:

Ans: (D) In section 168 of IPC

67. The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited:

Ans: (C) In section 168 of IPC

68. Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments:

Ans: (D) 6

69. A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange. As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who  may become lawful holder of it:

Ans: (A) The endorsement is a valuable security  (Under section 30 of IPC)

70. The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided:

Ans: (A) In section 34 of IPC

·        ) These are comes under Indian Penal Code 1860.

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